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Would this fall in "the intent to defraud" category?

Location: Tennessee  |  Law type: wills

A man lived with my landlord, he was titled to at least 5 properties, vehicles, and probably $200,000 in bank.  As he was preparing to die, he wrote a will, a friend notary (banker) came to the house to sign, & notarize will, got busy chatting, the banker notarized the will that was never signed by the man.  It appears the woman/landlord acted as Executor to the estate without ever entering the will in court in Tennessee.  somehow she got into his bank account usurped all the money, sold his vehicles, continued to collect rent on his properties, finally letting 4 of them go back to the bank.  It looks like she paid for 1 property she shared a mortgage with, not on title, and then paid off her home. Now she has passed away, and is trying to give the property I live in to her son, the other property she did quit claim to her daughter.  She was a banker, so I believe she knew this was wrong. The man's will was never probated, and now her children are not going to probate her will.  The original family of the man received nothing, no reporting, no debt/credit statements, nothing, none of their fathers property. The house I live in is still in the dead man's name.  I am not seeing the son has any lawful right to the home, my checks since the death were made out to dead woman, and estate of dead woman, the son cashed them both at the bank she was employed at.  I do not have any contract with the son. I received a letter from the son stating he wanted me to leave in 60 days, he wants to live here.  This is wiry I know.  I would love to see the house go back to the family of origin.  My question is: Is this a case of intent to defraud the original family, and would it be ill gotten gains?  Any way for the family to get at least part of what was truly theirs in the first place?  If landlord's family is forced to put will in court, can the family of origin put a lien against the will, forcing the landlord's dirty deeds out in the open?  I want to try to get the family of origin something out of this mess.  They actually do have a signed will, were convinced the new unsigned will was the legal one.  What happens if they put their signed will into court, can they force this usurping family to produce all documents, records, banking & such from their actions?       I Thank You for any light on the subject.

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"Would this fall in "the intent to defraud" category?"

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